אִם־יָק֞וּם וְהִתְהַלֵּ֥ךְ בַּח֛וּץ עַל־מִשְׁעַנְתּ֖וֹ וְנִקָּ֣ה הַמַּכֶּ֑ה רַ֥ק שִׁבְתּ֛וֹ יִתֵּ֖ן וְרַפֹּ֥א יְרַפֵּֽא׃ (ס)
if that victim then gets up and walks outdoors upon a staff, the assailant shall go unpunished—except for paying for the idleness and the cure. (Rapo yirape, in Hebrew - sometimes translated, "He shall surely heal..."
According to your first reading of these verses, who is obligated to do what for whom?
The Gemara asks: And according to the opinion of the latter Rabbis in the baraita, who say: Anyone who is liable to pay compensation for loss of livelihood is liable to pay compensation for medical costs, and anyone who is not liable to pay compensation for loss of livelihood is not liable to pay compensation for medical costs, why do I need, i.e., how do I account for, the fact that the verse repeated the obligation to pay medical costs? (i.e. why is the root r.p.a. repeated Rapo yirape?) The Gemara answers: It is necessary for that which the school of Rabbi Yishmael taught. As it is taught in a baraita that the school of Rabbi Yishmael says: When the verse states: “And shall cause him to be thoroughly healed [verappo yerappe]” (Exodus 21:19), it is derived from here that permission is granted to a doctor to heal, and it is not considered to be an intervention counter to the will of God.
How does this text change the understanding of the original verse? Why wouldn't we be allowed to heal?
How do we get from permission to heal to an obligation to do so?
What other obligations go along with the obligation to heal? Who is obligated to fulfill them?
How do these two sources (one from medieval Spain, the other from 19th century Bulgaria) reconcile the employment of medical doctors with ultimate faith in God?